1. A person is justified in using or threatening to use force, except deadly force, against another when and to the extent that the person reasonably believes that such conduct is necessary to defend himself or herself or another against the other's imminent use of unlawful force. A person who uses or threatens to use force in accordance with this subsection does not have a duty to retreat before using or threatening to use such force.
Going by the black letter law I tend to think that Mac's interpretation is correct. I'm going to take the above and rewrite it eliminating the "or" in the beginning and replacing it with the effective language that the "or" creates.
1. A person is justified in using force, except deadly force, against another when and to the extent that the person reasonably believes that such conduct is necessary to defend himself or herself or another against the other's imminent use of unlawful force.
A person is justified in threatening to use force, except deadly force, against another when and to the extent that the person reasonably believes that such conduct is necessary to defend himself or herself or another against the other's imminent use of unlawful force.
A person who uses force in accordance with this subsection does not have a duty to retreat before using such force.
A person who threatens to use force in accordance with this subsection does not have a duty to retreat before threatening to use such force.
The bolded portion could be read to say that you
may not threaten to use deadly force against even an imminent use of force that is simply unlawful.
Then there is the next section which apparently intends to deal with deadly force.
2. A person is justified in using or threatening to use deadly force if he or she reasonably believes that using or threatening to use such for is necessary to prevent imminent death or great bodily harm to himself or herself or another or to prevent the imminent commission of a forcible felony.
Parsing that yields this:
2. A person is justified in using deadly force if he or she reasonably believes that using such force is necessary to prevent imminent death or great bodily harm to himself or herself or another or to prevent the imminent commission of a forcible felony.
A person is justified in threatening to use deadly force if he or she reasonably believes that threatening to use such force is necessary to prevent imminent death or great bodily harm to himself or herself or another or to prevent the imminent commission of a forcible felony.
The end result appears to be that you can only threaten to use deadly force if you could legally actually use deadly force.
I think the average juror would say that drawing a firearm to low ready would constitute threatening to use deadly force.
Unless there is a bullet proof (no pun intended) argument to counter the above, then I would say with regard to pulling your firearm as a deterrent measure to another's offer of non-deadly force, by the black letter of the law the result of the new law will indeed be more restrictive than in the past.
In the past I believe that the only statute that potentially criminalized "defensive display" was 790.10 (displaying "in a rude, careless, angry, or threatening manner, not in necessary self-defense"). That said, I don't know enough about the cases where people were convicted for threatening to use a firearm and sentenced to mandatory minimums. Were they charged under an overbroad reading of some other statute? If so, then we'd probably have to look at that statute as well.
I scanned the legislative purpose and findings in the first part of the bill and don't find anything that would clarify or refute the reading of the text that would imply that you cannot threaten to use deadly force against merely unlawful force.
My mind is open to persuasion in all directions at the moment, but the above is my conclusion after reading the posts thus far and parsing the text of the revised statutes.
Edited to add: It is important to note, and it just dawned on me, that 776.012, 776.013 are permissive statutes. They do not criminalize any behavior. They simply decriminalize behavior that might have otherwise been considered criminal. In that respect no new restriction on your ability to threaten to use force has actually occurred. The simple fact (if indeed it is a fact) that 776.012 does not authorize you to threaten to use deadly force against one whom merely offers unlawful force against you does not mean that it criminalizes doing so. So it would seem that with regard to that particular fact pattern (old lady draws gun to ward off unarmed bully) nothing may have actually changed.